A situation in a ballgame this past week about what constitutes a fair or foul ball. There's one overriding rule in baseball the ball is what is fair or foul not player. The original question was the ball hit home plate and the umpire called it fair, correctly, but the coach thought it should be foul because it hit home plate NO, what makes it fair foul is one of the following criteria:
1. If the ball hits the ground and then passes over or inside first or third then it doesn't matter where it lands past the base it is a fair ball.
2. If the ball is in front of first or third base then it's where the ball is touched NOT, the player position of the ball is what determines fair or foul not player.
3. What are the common ones is that the batted ball is hit into foul territory then comes back into their territory, too many times players or coaches or fans think that because the ball landed in foul territory then got into fair territory that it still foul ball. Again it's where it's touched in front of first or third base. We never think about the ball that hit fair and then rolls foul everyone call that a foul ball, but the truth is the exact reverse of it is also correct it can land in foul territory and roll into fair territory (as long as it is in front of first or third) and it will still be a fair ball. Just something they came up this weekend that's always been true.
UmpireI was watching my son's game last night at the high school level. I saw something during the game that caused me confusion, can you straighten me out as to what and when a batter can run a dropped 3rd strike.
Fred
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Fred
you are not alone a lot of people are confused including the players on this situation. There are a couple situations when the batter can or cannot run after dropped third strike.
1. He can always run after dropped third strike if there is no one on first base.
2. Cannot run I dropped third strike if there are less than two outs and first base is occupied.
3. This one is the one that seems to cause most confusion if there are two outs and regardless if first base is occupied or not a batter can run on a dropped third strike.
Note to go along with the question. The catcher need to know not to make a play on a runner that takes off to first with first occupied and less than 2 out. The umpire will help but it is his responsiblity to know not to throw. Then with 2 outs and the runner moving to first that batter/runner must be put out OR they can put out any runner that is in a force play situation. It does not have to be the batter/runner that is played on for the 3rd out.
Hope this helps.
Ump Arnald Swift
Hey Ump, I have another question. If the batter hits the ball down the first baseline & the 1st baseman fields the ball in front of the bag with one foot in fair & the foot in foul territory,is the ball fair or foul?
Answer:
I really can't answer your question because the player has nothing to do with whether the ball is fair or foul. In the baseball what determines if a ball is fair or foul is where it's located when touched by a player. If the ball is on or over line when touched then the ball is fair regardless of where the player is. It is quite conceivable to have a player in fair territory when he touches the ball, but the ball is located outside of the line, therefore it is foul. To expand on this little bit a ball that is it and touches the ground in front of first or third base then passes over or inside of the base is fair regardless of where it touches after it passes the base. If the ball is in flight when it goes past first or third in what determines it to be fair or foul is where it lands or is first touched by a player. Therefore the reason I couldn't answer your question directly is you didn't tell me where the ball was when touch, and the player position has nothing to do with determining fair or foul.
Is it legal for the first baseman to have his feet, one or both, in foul territory while holding a runner at first base? Kevin
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Rule you must have eight players in fair territory- catcher is only one that can start in foul territory. The rule is really designed to keep a coach from placing a player behind the catcher during an intentional walk, or some other defensive scheme before a live pitch.
To answer your question directly if you have 1 foot in foul territory and be considered okay, but he may not have both feet in foul territory which by the way is very difficult to do but that would be illegal.
I can tell you right now it's an extraordinarily rare call on first baseman while he is holding a runner on base. As the proper position for a first baseman right or left-handed is to place his heel on the front inside corner so as to be able to receive the ball, swipe tag, and not have the runner interfere with his receiving the ball by getting in between him and the ball. If your first base with his standing in foul territory he's cheating himself.
Umpire Arnald Swift
